Today we are going to share Google Campaign Manager Certification Exam Answers launched by Google. This certification course is totally free of cost for you and is available on Google Marketing platform.
Google Marketing Platform Product Certifications identify qualified users who demonstrate the ability to perform critical tasks and workflows with Platform products. The certification exams are designed for users with real-world, hands-on experience using Google Marketing Platform products, and test on specific predetermined criteria aligned with critical job tasks. The certification exams are not recommended for users who don’t have direct product experience.
About this exam
The Campaign Manager Certification exam covers planning, implementing, reporting, and troubleshooting reservation buys while working across partners. It also assesses ad tag delivery, measurement, and troubleshooting methods used to optimize performance.
Users completing this exam should be experienced users of Campaign Manager. This exam covers broad product use from trafficking to reporting. Specialized roles (such as Agency Planners) may not be well aligned to the broad knowledge tested by this exam.
The knowledge tested in this exam aligns with the following roles:
Google Marketing Platform product certifications identify qualified users who demonstrate the ability to perform critical tasks and workflows with Platform products. This certification exam is designed for users with hands-on experience and will test on specific predetermined criteria aligned with critical job tasks.
Here, you will find Campaign Manager Certification Quiz Answers in Bold Color which are given below.
These answers are updated recently and are 100% correct answers of all modules and final exam answers of Google Campaign Manager Certification Exam Answers Certification Course. And After completion of this course, you will free a verified certificate from Google.
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Campaign Manager Certification Exam Answers
Q.1 – When is an impression counted in Reporting?
(A) After a user’s device indicates that the creative download has begun
(B) After the browser begins loading the webpage
(C) After the creative is served and viewed on the site
(D) As soon as a creative is requested from the publisher
Q.2 – When a Top Conversion Paths report shows that most users enter the purchase cycle with a rich media interaction, what action can be taken to optimize the campaign?
(A) Target remarketing lists for all image creatives
(B) Create a sequential rotation with the Rich Media creative set first
(C) Allocate more budget to building better video creatives
(D) Assign the ad’s frequency cap to one impression per day
Q.3 – What attribution model uses Floodlight data from both attributed and non-attributed conversions?
(A) Data-driven model
(B) Time Decay model
(C) First Interaction model
(D) Linear model
Q.4 – Which two methods count impressions on site-served creatives? (select two)
(A) Mobile tracking ad
(B) 1×1 impression tracker
(C) Tracking Ads
(D) Click tracker ad
Q.5 – What account structure should be used to share Floodlight tags and audience lists between multiple Advertisers?
(A) A parent/child relationship
(B) Shared billing profiles
(C) A single Floodlight activity
(D) An account/advertiser relationship
Q.6 – What does an “execution channel” represent in the Planning process?
(A) An area to enter the user’s objectives, budget, and start and end dates
(B) The act of sending an RFP to begin the negotiation process with the publisher
(C) A “channel” created between an advertiser and publisher as soon as the RFP is sent
(D) The “link” from the inventory in a media plan to a Campaign Manager campaign where placements can be executed
Q.7 – What HTML elements of a Floodlight tag’s iFrame code identify the unique activity?
(A) “src” and 1×1
(B) “type” and “cat”
(C) u1 and “fls”
(D) 1×1 and “ord”
Q.8 – When a “plan” is executed in Planning, what information is pushed to Campaign Manager?
(A) A list of creative specifications for implementing the deals in Display & Video 360
(B) A list of placements you intend to purchase and the publishers you’re buying inventory from
(C) TrueView placements for running on YouTube properties
(D) A dynamic feed that can be quickly implemented into Studio
Q.9 – What targeting rules display an ad to users who have viewed a product, but not purchased it?
(A) Positively target all product viewers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables
(B) Positively target all product viewers AND negatively target all product purchasers
(C) Negatively target all product purchasers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables
(D) Positively target all product purchasers AND negatively target all product viewers
Q.10 – Unless default ads are disabled, what campaign trafficking action triggers the automatic creation of a default ad for display placements?
(A) Adding an image creative at the advertiser level
(B) Adding a rich media creative at the campaign level
(C) Adding an HTML5 creative at the campaign level
(D) Adding an image creative at the campaign level
Q.11 – What data is provided in Video Verification?
(A) Resolution and bit rate details
(B) Information about ads that served on the same page
(C) Asset and transcoding validation
(D) Video player size and viewability
Q.12 – Where would purchased inventory for a campaign be entered in Campaign Manager?
(B) Landing pages
(D) Floodlight tags
Q.13 – In which two tags can the keyword macro (%k) be added? (select two)
(C) Impression Event
(D) Tracking Ad
Q.14 – What feature can be used to combine log-level impression and click data for a custom reach analysis?
(A) Line item filtering in Studio
(B) Data Transfer
(C) GRP Insights
(D) Attribution conversion segments
Q.15 – What report tracks Floodlight attribution in Reporting?
(A) Floodlight impressions
(B) Path to Conversion
(C) Cookie Reach Overlap
Q.16 – What timezone is used in Data Transfer (DT) timestamps for impression and click files?
(A) The advertiser’s timezone
(B) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)
(C) Eastern Time (ET)
(D) The user’s timezone
Q.17 – In the Insights tab in Reporting, which two cards show a snapshot of performance? (select two)
(A) Paid Search Ad
(B) Device Usage
(C) Creative Type
(D) Video Player Size
Q.18 – When using a placement media cost cap, what will happen once the cap is reached?
(A) Ad-serving fees won’t be charged
(B) Reports will not reflect the impressions and click metrics
(C) The placement will be paused until the cap is removed
(D) Campaign Manager will stop calculating and reporting Media Cost for the Placement moving forward
Q.19 – What Floodlight conversion counting method would report the first visit for each user within a given day?
(A) Per session
Q.20 – Which functionalities are available to manage conversion data using the API? (select two)
Q.21 – In a Path to Conversion report, when a user selects to “Pivot On Interaction Path,” what are two major differences from the unpivoted report? (select two)
(A) Each conversion gets its own row with interactions in separate columns
(B) Each interaction gets its own row with interactions spread across rows
(C) Rows and columns are flipped
(D) Rows and columns aren’t affected by a pivot, but can only be filtered when unpivoted
Q.22 – Which three workflows can be used to make bulk edits? (select three)
(A) Campaign spreadsheet upload
(B) The Campaign Manager filtered view
(C) The Edit Multiple button
(D) The DCM/DFA Reporting and Trafficking API
Q.23 – At what level can landing pages be managed across campaigns?
Q.24 – What is required to track mobile app conversions using Floodlight tags?
(A) A Floodlight tag with the activities set to collect in-app variables, available in DT files
(B) A dynamic publisher pixel implemented in the Floodlight tag
(C) A user-resettable device identifier passed to both Floodlight tags and the ad tags running in apps
(D) An HTML5 macro added to the Floodlight tag and ad tag, and uploaded in the SDK
Q.25 – What is the limit to retrieve log data from a Data Transfer Google Bucket?
(A) 60 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 1 year
Q.26 – What report shows how long it takes for a customer to convert after interacting with an ad?
(A) Path to Conversion
(B) Time Lag
(C) Path Length
(D) First Interaction
Q.27 – What action must occur for a team member to get access to Data Transfer files in Google Cloud Storage?
(A) Set up an automated email for the team member to receive daily reports
(B) Associate the team member with a User Profile designated for Google Cloud access
(C) Add the team member’s email to the Google Group associated with the Cloud Storage bucket
(D) Run the script: gs://[bucket_name]/[username]
Q.28 – What ad setting limits the number of times that ad can be shown to a particular user?
(A) Frequency cap
(B) Impression ratio
(C) Hard cut-off
Q.29 – When the primary HTML5 assets get delayed, what will serve in a user’s browser as it’s loading?
(A) Backup image
(B) .swf file
(C) Polite load image
(D) Default ad
Q.30 – Which information can be extracted from the data in the Verification tab? (select two)
(A) Errors for the ad tag related to implementation issues
(B) Conversion and revenue performance
(C) Charts showing all of the errors related to visual performance
(D) Issues related to content
Q.31 – When dynamic display creatives are published from Studio, what creative type is set in Campaign Manager?
(A) Custom Display Interstitial
(B) Rich Media
(C) HTML5 banner
Q.32 – When would a VPAID asset be used?
(A) When VAST is not supported
(B) When a video ad contains interactive features
(C) For videos served on mobile devices
(D) As a backup for a VAST asset
Q.33 – If an Agency Trafficker can only see a subset of active campaigns within their account view, where would a Agency Admin go to adjust access to all campaigns?
(A) Subaccount access
(B) User roles
(C) User profile filters
(D) Google account permissions
Q.34 – To link a Display & Video 360 advertiser, what initial step must be taken in Campaign Manager?
(A) Add the Display & Video 360 partner ID to the Floodlight configuration as an association
(B) Contact support using live chat
(C) Create a new association in the advertiser’s properties and add the Trafficking code
(D) From Campaign Manager, go to the Google Marketing Platform apps icon and select Display & Video 360
Q.35 – Cross-environment conversion methodology takes into account what data sources?
(A) Data pools, cookies, audience IDs
(B) Resettable device IDs, cookies, anonymized Google sign-ins
(C) Cookies, SDKs, audience data
(D) Device types, OS, cookies
Q.36 – For Floodlight tags to properly attribute in-app conversions, what needs to happen within the app?
(A) Device ID needs to be passed into the dc_rdid parameter
(B) The tag needs to be set as INS tag with mobile capacity
(C) The tag needs to be assigned an app ID
(D) A global site tag (gtag.js) must be used
Q.37 – Which metric is NOT available in Data Transfer?
(A) Active View: % of Completed Impressions Visible
(B) Designated Market Area (DMA) ID
(C) % Invalid Clicks
(D) Cross-environment conversions
Q.38 – Where are Campaign Manager and Display & Video 360 linked?
(A) Admin subaccounts
(B) Advertiser properties
(C) Campaign properties
(D) Floodlight configuration
Q.39 – What happens when a user meets the frequency cap for an ad?
(A) The placement stops serving to that user
(B) Another ad or a default ad is served
(C) Ads serve at a lower CPM
(D) Ads stop serving to that user
Q.40 – What cost model only calculates cost for impressions measured as viewable by Active View?
Q.41 – Agency Admin, Agency Trafficker, and Site Trafficker are examples of what?
(A) Content categories
(B) User profiles
(C) Placement strategies
(D) User roles
Q.42 – Which two methods measure impressions served in a mobile app? (select two)
(A) Mobile tracking ad
(B) Serving mobile creative directly through Campaign Manager
(C) Click tracker ad
(D) 1×1 impression tracker
Q.43 – What are two benefits of using the INS tag? (select two)
(A) More robust Verification data
(B) Reduces load latency
(D) Eliminates the need for publishers to add cache-busters
Q.44 – What counting method tracks the number of sales made or items purchased?
(A) Counter activities
(B) Custom Floodlight variables
(C) Standard counting
(D) Sales activities
Q.45 – Counters and Total Interactions metrics are available for which type of creatives?
(A) HTML5 creatives coded in GWD
(B) Creatives built in Studio
(C) Mobile in-app interstials
(D) Twitter creatives
Q.46 – To set ad status to “active,” which two objects must be assigned to an ad?
(A) A placement
(B) An active creative
(C) A frequency cap
(D) A priority
Q.47 – Which conditions must be true in order to designate an advertiser as a “child”?
(A) The advertiser is part of a subaccount
(B) There aren’t any Floodlight activities associated with the “child” advertiser
(C) The advertiser doesn’t have any “child” advertisers associated with it
(D) There aren’t any campaigns associated with the “parent” advertiser
Q.48 – What is the more cost-effective way to restrict ads served to a specific geographic region?
(A) Language targeting managed by the ad server
(B) Frequency caps managed the publisher or DSP
(C) Geo-targeting managed by the ad server
(D) Geo-targeting managed by a publisher or DSP
Q.49 – What must a Floodlight tag include to capture product data alongside a conversion?
(A) Dynamic pixels
(B) An ord value
(C) 1×1 tracking pixel
(D) Custom Floodlight variable
Q.50 – What settings are required to give a user reporting access for a single advertiser?
(A) Schedule a report to be sent to the user, automatically granting them access to that data
(B) Create a user profile with a reporting-only user role, and filter for that advertiser
(C) Ask the advertiser to send an email to support, granting access to their reporting data
(D) Create a user role, and assign the advertiser as the sub-account.
Q.51 – The “DCM/DFA Trafficking and Reporting API” can directly accomplish which two tasks? (select two)
(A) Download data transfer log files
(B) Upload conversions
(C) Customize reporting
(D) Customize verification alerts
Q.52 – What level is used to calculate conversions if the lookback window differs between objects?
(A) Account level
(B) Placement level
(C) Site level
(D) Campaign level
Q.53 – The Insights tab in Reporting shows the view performance against which three goals? (select three)
(A) Conversions per impression
(B) Cost per activity (CPA)
(C) Viewable CPM
(D) Click rate
Q.54 – Where in Campaign Manager can the Site ID(s) required to push placements to Display & Video 360 be found?
(A) In Site Directory under Properties
(B) In Campaign Manager Account Admin settings
(C) In the advertiser’s properties, under Landing Pages
(D) Next to its associated site name within a Campaign
Q.55 – What object in Campaign Manager is equivalent to a creative in Display & Video 360?
Q.56 – What Floodlight feature can be used to create a custom audience list that targets customers who purchased a specific product or service?
(A) Sales Floodlight tags that capture revenue
(B) Dynamic Floodlight tag that sources product or service IDs
(C) Custom Floodlight variable that captures the product or service ID
(D) Custom 1×1 pixel that fires when the product or service page loads
Q.57 – Which two features may be used to log additional information about a click? (select two)
(A) Landing page URL suffix
(B) Event tags
(C) Dynamic targeting keys
(D) Image source tags
Q.58 – What report in Report Builder shows the number of unique users who have interacted with ads?
(A) Cookie Reach Overlap
(C) Path to Conversion
Q.59 – At what level can landing pages be set, so they are the same across multiple ads?
Q.60 – Audience lists created in Campaign Manager can be automatically shared with which linked applications? (select three)
(A) Display & Video 360
(B) Search Ads 360
(D) Google Ads
Q.61 – What section within a Floodlight activity’s settings allows users to add publisher tracking tags?
(A) Custom Floodlight variables
(B) Dynamic tags
(C) Advanced properties
(D) Google Tag Manager
Q.62 – What are two Video Verification metrics? (select two)
(A) Audio muted at finish
(B) Video Prominence Score
(C) Eligible impressions for audio
(D) Audio muted at start
Q.63 – Paid search dimensions in Report Builder are compatible with what metric?
(A) Active View
(B) Paid Search Revenue
(C) Cost Per Click
(D) Downloaded impressions
Q.64 – When assets are added to an existing creative, where will these updates be reflected?
(A) Updates appear as a new creative
(B) In the creative preview, but not in currently assigned ads
(C) In future ad creative assignments, but not within existing ads
(D) Within the ads where the creatives are assigned
Q.65 – Which two tabs in Reporting provide access to viewability data? (select two)
(B) Report Builder
Q.66 – What action can be taken to select which columns appear in the trafficking interface?
(A) Create a new user role
(B) Create a new user profile
(C) Create a custom view
(D) Create a filter
Q.67 – What are the three benefits of using Internal Redirect tags? (select three)
(A) Saves time from having to negotiate deals with the publisher
(B) Reduce latency on ad-serving
(C) Richer domain information in Verification
(D) Standardize a counting method with platform publishers
Q.68 – What ad setting ensures a qualified user will always be served a city-targeted ad first over a country-targeted ad when both ads are assigned to the same placement?
(B) Frequency cap
(C) Keyword targeting
(D) Dynamic targeting keys
Q.69 – If a publisher serves a placement tag after the campaign end date, what ad will serve?
(A) A random ad
(B) Nothing will serve
(C) The default ad
(D) The backup image
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